adequate investigation of the management team. 2) An audit must be performed with an attitude of professional skepticism. Professional skepticism consists of two primary components: a questioning mind and: A) the assumption that upper-level management is dishonest. B) a critical assessment of the audit evidence. C) the assumption that all employees are motivated by greed. D) verification of all critical information by independent third parties. 3) Which of the following is not one of the reasons that auditors provide only reasonable assurance on the financial statements? A) The auditor commonly examines a sample, rather than the entire population of transactions. B) Accounting presentations contain complex estimates which involve uncertainty. C) Fraudulently prepared financial statements are often difficult to detect. D) Auditors believe that reasonable assurance is sufficient in the vast majority of cases. 4) Which of the following statements is the most correct regarding errors and fraud? A) An error is unintentional, whereas fraud is intentional. B) Frauds occur more often than errors in financial statements. C) Errors are always fraud and frauds are always errors. D) Auditors have more responsibility for finding fraud than errors. 5) When an auditor believes that an illegal act may have occurred, the auditor should first: A) obtain an understanding of the nature and circumstances of the act. B) consult with legal counsel or others knowledgeable about the illegal act. C) discuss the matter with the audit committee. D) withdraw from the engagement. 6) The auditor has no responsibility to plan and perform the audit to obtain reasonable assurance that misstatements, whether caused by errors or fraud, that are not ________ are detected. A) important to the financial statements B) statistically significant to the financial statements C) material to the financial statements D) identified by the client 7) Fraudulent financial reporting is most likely to be committed by whom? A) Line employees of the company B) Outside members of the company’s board of directors C) Company management D) The company’s auditors 8) Which of the following would most likely be deemed a direct-effect illegal act? A) Violation of federal employment laws B) Violation of federal environmental regulations C) Violation of federal income tax laws D) Violation of civil rights laws 9) The concept of reasonable assurance indicates that the auditor is: A) not a guarantor of the correctness of the financial statements. B) not responsible for the fairness of the financial statements. C) responsible only for issuing an opinion on the financial statements. D) responsible for finding all misstatements. 10) Which of the following is the auditor least likely to do when aware of an illegal act? A) Discuss the matter with the client’s legal counsel. B) Obtain evidence about the potential effect of the illegal act on the financial statements. C) Contact the local law enforcement officials regarding potential criminal wrongdoing. D) Consider the impact of the illegal act on the relationship with the company’s management. 11) An auditor discovers that the company’s bookkeeper unintentionally made a mistake in calculating the amount of the quarterly sales. This is an example of: A) employee fraud. B) an error. C) misappropriation of assets. D) a defalcation. 12) The auditor has considerable responsibility for notifying users as to whether or not the statements are properly stated. This imposes upon the auditor a duty to: A) provide reasonable assurance that material misstatements will be detected. B) be a guarantor of the fairness in the statements. C) be equally responsible with management for the preparation of the financial statements. D) be an insurer of the fairness in the statements. 13) “The auditor should not assume that management is dishonest, but the possibility of dishonesty must be considered.” This is an example of: A) unprofessional behavior. B) an attitude of professional skepticism. C) due diligence. D) a rule in the AICPA’s Code of Professional Conduct. 14) If the auditor were responsible for making certain that all of management’s assertions in the financial statements were absolutely correct: A) bankruptcies could no longer occur. B) bankruptcies would be reduced to a very small number. C) audits would be much easier to complete. D) audits would not be economically practical. 15) One of the characteristics of professional skepticism is ________, which is the conviction to decide for oneself, rather than accepting the claims of others. A) interpersonal understanding B) autonomy C) suspension of judgment D) self-esteem 16) When dealing with laws and regulations that do not have a direct effect on the financial statements, the auditor: A) should inquire of management about whether the entity is in compliance with such laws and regulations. B) has no responsibility to determine if any violations of these laws has occurred. C) must report all violations, including inconsequential violations, to the audit committee. D) should perform the same procedures as for violations having a direct effect on the financial statements. 17) Which of the following statements is usually true? A) Materiality is easy to quantify. B) Fraudulent financial statements are often easy for the auditor to detect, especially when there is collusion among management. C) Reasonable assurance is a low level of assurance that the financial statements are free from material misstatement. D) An item is considered material if it would likely have changed or influenced the decisions of a reasonable person using the statements. 18) Auditing standards make ________ distinction(s) between the auditor’s responsibilities for searching for errors and fraud. A) little B) a significant C) no D) various 19) In comparing management fraud with employee fraud, the auditor’s risk of failing to discover the fraud is: A) greater for management fraud because managers are inherently more deceptive than employees. B) greater for management fraud because of management’s ability to override existing internal controls. C) greater for employee fraud because of the higher crime rate among blue collar workers. D) greater for employee fraud because of the larger number of employees in the organization. 20) Misappropriation of assets: A) is generally committed by company management. B) harms the users of the financial statements by providing them incorrect financial data for their decision making. C) causes harm to stockholders because the assets are no longer available to their rightful owners. D) causes the financial statements to be misstated since the misappropriation usually involves material amounts. 21) When comparing the auditor’s responsibility for detecting employee fraud and for detecting errors, the profession has placed the responsibility: A) more on discovering errors than employee fraud. B) more on discovering employee fraud than errors. C) equally on discovering errors and employee fraud. D) on the senior auditor for detecting errors and on the manager for detecting employee fraud. 22) If several employees collude to falsify documents, the chance a normal audit would uncover such acts is: A) very low. B) very high. C) zero. D) none of the above. 23) When planning the audit, if the auditor has no reason to believe that illegal acts exist, the auditor should: A) include audit procedures which have a strong probability of detecting illegal acts. B) still include some audit procedures designed specifically to uncover illegalities. C) ignore the issue. D) make inquiries of management regarding their policies for detecting and preventing illegal acts and regarding their knowledge of violations, and then rely on normal audit procedures to detect errors, irregularities, and illegalities. 24) When the auditor identifies or suspects noncompliance with laws and regulations, the auditor: A) should discuss the matter with those whom they believe committed the illegal act. B) begin communication with the FASB in accordance with PCAOB regulations. C) may disclaim an opinion on the basis of scope limitations if he is precluded by management from obtaining sufficient appropriate evidence. D) should withdraw from the engagement. 25) When an auditor knows that an illegal act has occurred, she must: A) report it to the proper governmental authorities. B) consider the effects on the financial statements, including the adequacy of disclosure. C) withdraw from the engagement. D) issue an adverse opinion. 26) A questioning mindset: A) means the auditor must prove every statement that management makes to them. B) means the auditor should approach the audit with a “do not trust anyone” mental outlook. C) assures that the auditor will only accept honest clients. D) means the auditor should approach the audit with a “trust but verify” mental outlook. 27) Which of the following is an accurate statement concerning the auditor’s responsibility to consider laws and regulations? A) Auditors can follow an easy, step-by-step procedure to determine how laws and regulations impact the financial statements. B) The auditor’s responsibility will depend on whether the laws or regulations are expected to have a direct impact on the financial statements. C) It is the responsibility of the auditor to determine if an act constitutes noncompliance. D) The auditor must inform an outside party if management has knowingly not complied with a law or regulation. 28) Which of the following statements best describes the auditor’s responsibility with respect to illegal acts that do not have a material effect on the client’s financial statements? A) Generally, the auditor is under no obligation to notify parties other than personnel within the client’s organization. B) Generally, the auditor is under an obligation to inform the PCAOB. C) Generally, the auditor is obligated to disclose the relevant facts in the auditor’s report. D) Generally, the auditor is expected to compel the client to adhere to requirements of the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act. 29) Which of the following statements best describes the auditor’s responsibility regarding the detection of fraud? A) The auditor is responsible for the failure to detect fraud only when such failure clearly results from nonperformance of audit procedures specifically described in the engagement letter. B) The auditor is required to provide reasonable assurance that the financial statements are free of both material errors and fraud. C) The auditor is responsible for detecting material financial statement fraud, but not a material misappropriation of assets. D) The auditor is responsible for the failure to detect fraud only when an unqualified opinion is issued. 30) The essence of the attest function is to: A) assure the consistent application of correct accounting procedures. B) determine whether the client’s financial statements are fairly stated in accordance with an applicable financial reporting framework. C) examine individual transactions so that the auditor may certify as to their validity. D) detect collusion and fraud. 31) The auditor’s evaluation of the likelihood of material employee fraud is normally done initially as a part of: A) tests of controls. B) tests of transactions. C) understanding the entity’s internal control. D) the assessment of whether to accept the audit engagement. 32) One of the characteristics of professional skepticism is_______, which is a desire to investigate beyond the obvious. A) self-esteem B) an interpersonal understanding C) a search for knowledge D) a questioning mindset 33) Most illegal acts affect the financial statements: A) directly. B) only indirectly. C) both directly and indirectly. D) materially if direct; immaterially if indirect. 34) If a client has violated federal tax laws: A) the auditor must notify the IRS. B) and the amount is significant, the auditor should communicate with those charged with governance. C) the noncompliance generally will not impact the financial statements. D) the auditor does not need to evaluate the effects of the noncompliance on other aspects of the audit. 35) An auditor should recognize that the application of auditing procedures may produce evidence indicating the possibility of errors or fraud and therefore should: A) plan and perform the engagement with an attitude of professional skepticism. B) not rely on internal controls that are designed to prevent or detect errors or fraud. C) design audit tests to detect unrecorded transactions. D) extend the work to audit the majority of the recorded transactions and records of an entity. 1) Which of the following is not one of the three categories of assertions? A) Assertions about classes of transactions and events for the period under audit B) Assertions about financial statements and correspondence to GAAP C) Assertions about account balances at period end D) Assertions about presentation and disclosure 2) If a short-term note payable is included in the accounts payable balance on the financial statement, there is a violation of the: A) completeness assertion. B) existence assertion. C) cutoff assertion. D) classification assertion. 3) International auditing standards and U.S. GAAP classify assertions into three categories. Which of the following is not a category of assertions that management makes about the accounting information in financial statements? A) Assertions about classes of transactions for the period under audit B) Assertions about account balances at period end C) Assertions about the quality of source documents used to prepare the financial statements D) Assertions about presentation and disclosure 4) Management assertions are: A) directly related to the financial reporting framework used by the company, usually U.S. GAAP or IFRS. B) stated in the footnotes to the financial statements. C) explicitly expressed representations about the financial statements. D) provided to the auditor in the assertions letter, but are not disclosed on the financial statements. 5) Management makes the following assertions about account balances: A) existence, completeness, classification and cutoff. B) existence, accuracy, classification and rights and obligations. C) existence, completeness, valuation and allocation, and rights and obligations. D) existence, completeness, rights and obligations, and cutoff. 6) Which of the following statements is true about the completeness and occurrence assertions? A) Both assertions are relevant to classes of transactions and events and account balances. B) If management asserts that recorded sales transactions represent exchanges of goods or services that actually took place, they are asserting to completeness. C) Violations of the occurrence assertion relate to account overstatements. D) The failure to record a sale that did occur is a violation of the occurrence assertion. 7) Which of the following assertions is described as “this assertion addresses whether all transactions that should be included in the financial statements are in fact included”? A) Occurrence B) Completeness C) Rights and obligations D) Existence 8) Which of the following management assertions is not associated with classes of transactions and events? A) Occurrence B) Classification C) Accuracy D) Rights and obligations 1) Which of the following statements is true regarding the distinction between general audit objectives and specific audit objectives for each class of transactions? A) The specific audit objectives are applicable to every class of transactions. B) The general audit objectives are applicable to every class of transactions. C) Once the specific transaction-related audit objectives are established, they can be used to develop the general transaction-related objectives. D) For any given class of transactions, usually only one audit objective must be met to conclude the transactions are properly recorded. 2) The auditor is determining that the correct selling price was used for billing and that the quantity of goods shipped was the same as the quantity billed. She is gathering evidence about which transaction related audit objective? A) Existence B) Completeness C) Accuracy D) Cut-off 3) The posting and summarization audit objective is the auditor’s counterpart to management’s assertion of: A) occurrence. B) completeness. C) accuracy. D) classification. 4) After the general transaction related-audit objectives are understood, specific transaction-related audit objectives for each material class of transactions can be developed. Which of the following statements is true? A) There should be at least one specific objective for each relevant general objective. B) There will be only one specific objective for each relevant general objective. C) There will be many specific objectives developed for each relevant general objective. D) There must be one specific objective for each general objective. 1) In testing for cutoff, the objective is to determine: A) whether all of the current period’s transactions are recorded. B) whether transactions are recorded in the correct accounting period. C) the proper cutoff between capitalizing and expensing expenditures. D) the proper cutoff between disclosing items in footnotes or in account balances. 2) The detail tie-in objective is not concerned that the details in the account balance: A) agree with related subsidiary ledger amounts. B) are properly disclosed in accordance with GAAP. C) foot to the total in the account balance. D) agree with the total in the general ledger. 3) The detail tie-in is part of the ________ assertion for account balances. A) classification B) valuation and allocation C) rights and obligations D) completeness 4) The classification balance-related audit objective: A) involves determining if items included on a client’s listing are included in the correct general leger accounts. B) is the counterpart to the management assertion of completeness. C) involves determining if items included on a client’s listing are disclosed properly in the financial statements. D) involves tying in the account balances to the general ledger. 5) Which of the following best describes tests of details of balances? A) Audit procedures designed to test for monetary misstatements in the accounts summarized in the financial statements B) Audit procedures designed to test for the monetary amounts of transactions C) Audit procedures designed to test for reasonableness of account balances D) Audit procedures designed to test for effectiveness in recording accounting information 6) Which of the following statements is not true? A) Balance-related audit objectives are applied to ending account balances. B) Transaction-related audit objectives are applied to classes of transactions. C) Balance-related audit objectives are applied to the ending balance in balance sheet accounts. D) Balance-related audit objectives are applied to both beginning and ending balances in balance sheet accounts. 1)The responsibility for adopting sound accounting policies and maintaining adequate internal control rests with the: A) board of directors. B) company management. C) financial statement auditor. D) company’s internal audit department 2) If management insists on financial statement disclosures that the auditor finds unacceptable, the auditor can withdraw from the engagement or: A) Issue an adverse audit report Issue a qualified audit report Yes Yes B) Issue an adverse audit report Issue a qualified audit report No No C) Issue an adverse audit report Issue a qualified audit report Yes No D) Issue an adverse audit report Issue a qualified audit report No Yes 5) The responsibility for the preparation of the financial statements and the accompanying footnotes belongs to: A) the auditor. B) management. C) both management and the auditor equally. D) management for the statements and the auditor for the notes. Chapter 7 1) Auditors must make decisions regarding what evidence to gather and how much to accumulate. Which of the following is a decision that must be made by auditors related to evidence? A) Sample size Timing of audit procedures Yes Yes B) Sample size Timing of audit procedures No No C) Sample size Timing of audit procedures Yes No D) Sample size Timing of audit procedures No Yes 2) Audit procedures are concerned with the nature, extent, and timing in gathering audit evidence. Which, of the following, is true as to the timing of audit procedures? A) Prior to the fiscal year-end of the client Subsequent to the fiscal year-end of the client Yes Yes B) Prior to the fiscal year-end of the client Subsequent to the fiscal year-end of the client No No C) Prior to the fiscal year-end of the client Subsequent to the fiscal year-end of the client Yes No D) Prior to the fiscal year-end of the client Subsequent to the fiscal year-end of the client No Yes 3) A(n) ________ is the detailed instruction that explains the audit evidence to be obtained during the audit. A) audit objectives B) audit procedure C) audit assertion D) audit program 4) Which of the following is not one of the four decisions about what evidence to gather and how much of it to accumulate? A) Which audit procedures to use B) Which accounts must agree to the general ledger C) When to perform the procedures D) What sample size to select for a given procedure 1) Audit evidence has two primary qualities for the auditor; relevance and reliability. Given the choices below, which provides the auditor with the most reliable audit evidence? A) General ledger account balances B) Confirmation of accounts receivable balance received from a customer C) Internal memo explaining the issuance of a credit memo D) Copy of month-end adjusting entries 2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the reliability of evidence? A) Effectiveness of client internal controls B) Education of auditor C) Independence of information provider D) Timeliness 3) The auditor must gather sufficient and appropriate evidence during the course of the audit. Sufficient evidence must: A) be well documented and cross-referenced in the audit documents. B) be based on sources that are external to company. C) provide evidence that prove or disprove an audit objective/assertion. D) be persuasive enough to enable the auditor to issue an audit report. 4) Audit evidence obtained directly by the auditor will not be reliable if: A) the auditor lacks the competence to evaluate the evidence. B) it is provided by the client’s attorney. C) the client denies its veracity. D) it is impossible for the auditor to obtain additional corroboratory evidence. 5) Appropriateness of evidence is a measure of the: A) quantity of evidence. B) quality of evidence. C) sufficiency of evidence. D) meaning of evidence. 6) Which of the following statements regarding the relevance of evidence is correct? A) To be relevant, evidence must pertain to the audit objective of the evidence. B) To be relevant, evidence must be persuasive. C) To be relevant, evidence must relate to multiple audit objectives. D) To be relevant, evidence must be derived from a system including effective internal controls. 7) Two determinants of the persuasiveness of evidence are: A) competence and sufficiency. B) relevance and reliability. C) appropriateness and sufficiency. D) independence and effectiveness. 8) The two characteristics of the appropriateness of evidence are: A) relevance and timeliness. B) relevance and accuracy. C) relevance and reliability. D) reliability and accuracy. 9) Which of the following forms of evidence would be least persuasive in forming the auditor’s opinion about marketable securities and other investments held by the company? A) Responses to auditor’s questions by the president and controller regarding the investments account B) Correspondence with a stockbroker regarding the quantity of client’s investments held in street name by the broker C) Minutes of the board of directors authorizing the purchase of stock as an investment D) The auditor’s count of marketable securities 10) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) It is possible to vary the sample size from one unit to 100% of the items in the population. B) The decision of how many items to test should not be influenced by the increased costs of performing the additional tests. C) The decision of how many items to test must be made by the auditor for each audit procedure. D) The sample size for any given procedure is likely to vary from audit to audit. 11) For audit evidence to be compelling to the auditor it must be sufficient and appropriate. Which statement below is not correct regarding the appropriateness of audit evidence? A) The more effective the internal control system, the more assurance it provides the auditor about the reliability of financial reporting by the client. B) An auditor’s opinion, to be economically useful and profitable to the auditing firm needs to be formed within a reasonable time and based on evidence obtained that assures profits for the auditing firm. C) Evidence obtained from independent sources outside the entity is generally more reliable than evidence secured solely within the entity. D) The independent auditor’s direct personal knowledge, obtained through inquiry, observation and inspection, is generally more persuasive than information obtained indirectly. 12) Which of the following is a correct statement regarding audit evidence? A) A large sample of evidence provided by an independent party is always considered persuasive evidence. B) A small sample of only one or two pieces of highly appropriate evidence is always considered persuasive evidence. C) The auditor must obtain a sufficient amount of relevant and reliable evidence to form an opinion on the fairness of the financial statements. D) Evidence is usually more reliable for balance sheet accounts when it is obtained within six months of the balance sheet date. 13) Which of the following is the most objective type of evidence? A) A letter written by the client’s attorney discussing the likely outcome of outstanding lawsuits B) The physical count of securities and cash C) Inquiries of the credit manager about the collectability of noncurrent accounts receivable D) Observation of cobwebs on some inventory bins 14) Which items affect the sufficiency of evidence when choosing a sample? A) Selecting items w/ a high likelihood of misstatement The randomness of the items selected Yes Yes B) Selecting items w/ a high likelihood of misstatement The randomness of the items selected No No C) Selecting items w/ a high likelihood of misstatement The randomness of the items selected Yes No D) Selecting items w/ a high likelihood of misstatement The randomness of the items selected No Yes 15) Determine which of the following is most correct regarding the reliability of audit evidence. A) Information that is indirectly obtained from external sources is the most reliable audit evidence. B) Reliability of audit evidence is dependent upon the evidence being subjective. C) Reliability of evidence refers to the amount of evidence obtained. D) If internal controls are effective, evidence obtained is more reliable than when the controls are not effective. 16) Evidence is generally considered appropriate when: A) it has been obtained by random selection. B) there is enough of it to afford a reasonable basis for an opinion on financial statements. C) it is relevant to the audit objective being tested. D) it consists of written statements made by managers of the company under audit. 17) Given the economic and time constraints in which auditors can collect evidence about management assertions about the financial statements, the auditor normally gathers evidence that is: A) irrefutable. B) conclusive. C) persuasive. D) completely convincing. 18) Which of the following statements is not a correct statement regarding audit evidence? A) Evidence obtained from an independent source outside the client organization is more reliable than that obtained from within. B) Documentary evidence is more reliable when it is received by the auditor indirectly rather than directly. C) Documents that originate outside the company are considered more reliable than those that originate within the client’s organization. D) External evidence, such as communications from banks, is generally regarded as more reliable than answers obtained from inquiries of the client. 19) Evidence is usually more persuasive for balance sheet accounts when it is obtained: A) as close to the balance sheet date as possible. B) only from transactions occurring on the balance sheet date. C) from various times throughout the client’s year. D) from the time period when transactions in that account were most numerous during the fiscal period. 20) Which of the following statements is true? A) Evidence must be relevant to all of the audit objectives. B) If evidence is subjective, it cannot be reliable. C) Evidence obtained directly by the auditor may not be reliable if the auditor lacks the qualifications to evaluate the evidence. D) The persuasiveness of evidence can be evaluated after considering its sufficiency. 21) Which of the following statements relating to the competence of evidential matter is always true? A) Evidence from outside an enterprise is always reliable. B) Accounting data developed under satisfactory conditions of internal control is not reliable. C) Oral representations made by management are not reliable evidence. D) Evidence must be both reliable and relevant to be considered appropriate. 1) Calculating the gross margin for the current year under audit as a percent of sales and comparing it with previous years is what type of evidence? A) Physical examination B) Analytical procedures C) Observation D) Inquiry 2) When the auditor develops supporting evidence for amounts posted to account balances with documentary evidence, that process is called: A) inquiry. B) confirmation. C) vouching. D) physical examination. 3) An example of an external document that provides reliable information for the auditor is: A) employees’ time reports. B) bank statements. C) purchase order for company purchases. D) carbon copies of checks. 4) An example of a document the auditor receives from the client, but which was prepared by someone outside the client’s organization, is a: A) confirmation. B) sales invoice. C) vendor invoice. D) bank reconciliation. 5) The evaluations of financial information through analysis of plausible relationships among financial and nonfinancial data is the definition of: A) analytical procedures. B) tests of transactions. C) tests of balances. D) auditing. 6) Audit procedures can result in significant, unexpected differences. The auditor should investigate further if: A) Significant differences are not expected but do exist Significant differences are expected but do not exist Yes Yes B) Significant differences are not expected but do exist Significant differences are expected but do not exist No No C) Significant differences are not expected but do exist Significant differences are expected but do not exist Yes No D) Significant differences are not expected but do exist Significant differences are expected but do not exist No Yes 7) When the auditor uses tracing as an audit procedure for tests of transactions she is primarily concerned with which audit objective? A) Occurrence B) Completeness C) Cutoff D) Classification 8) When the auditor uses the audit procedure vouching she is primarily concerned with which of the following audit objectives when testing classes of transactions? A) Occurrence B) Completeness C) Authorization D) Classification 9) When auditors use documentation to support recorded transactions and amounts, the process is usually called: A) tracing. B) confirmations. C) vouching. D) reperformance. 10) Analytical procedures must be used during which phase(s) of the audit? A) Test of Controls Planning Completion Yes Yes Yes B) Test of Controls Planning Completion No Yes Yes C) Test of Controls Planning Completion Yes No No D) Test of Controls Planning Completion No No No 11) Auditors may decide to replace tests of details with analytical procedures when possible because the: A) analytical procedures are more reliable. B) analytical procedures are considerably less expensive. C) analytical procedures are more persuasive. D) tests of details are more difficult to interpret. 12) When making decisions about evidence for a given audit, the auditor’s goal is to obtain a sufficient amount of timely, reliable evidence that is relevant to the information being verified. In addition, the goal of audit efficiency is to gather and evaluate
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